Me and my friends went for some ice cream. My friends and I went for some ice cream. Shouldn’t we put ourselves last regardless of the “me”/”I” usage?
Answers 5
It’s then correct to say it’s me. Here is a good pin up online casino explanation about both forms. See similar questions with these tags. It all depends on where the phrase fits in the sentence.
The first half of your second example isn’t wrong because of the word order (ie Me and my friends vs My friends and me) it is wrong because me can’t be the subject of the sentence. You should use you and I when this acts as a subject and me and you when this acts as an object. The difference between “I and my friends” and “my friends and I” is purely a matter of courtesy – they are both grammatically correct. Did you see me and my friends at the ice cream stand? Did you see my friends and me at the ice cream stand?
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- This question is related to I can run faster than…
- • as the complement of an imperative – Give it me
- ‘Me” is used after the verb To be, and after the words than, but, like, and as, with such pertinacity it is at least doubtful whether it is not correct.
- There is a tendency in informal speech and writing to use object pronouns when conjoined with other nouns or pronouns, even if serving as the subject of a verb.
- The second sentence of that example is correct, since the pronoun needs to be in the accusative, as the object.
• as the complement of an imperative – Give it me They are both capable of being a complement. The disjunctive pronoun of French and the dative pronoun of English had a great overlap. Now it is important at this point to understand that “me” is not the accusative case, but the dative case. C’est moi is the French Idiom, not Cest je, and It is me is far more common than It is I. However, the Normans spoke a form of French and French is different and was an influence on English.
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When asking “Who is there?” it would be correct to answer in the nominative case, “I am here.” Likewise, asking “Who is it?” should elicit “It is I” or “I am it.” “It is I” is grammatically correct in the pure sense, but would never be used in spoken English – or very rarely by people who speak in an ultra-formal dialect. Aside from being ungrammatical, it conveys no information (unless the other person knows your voice). It is also useful to look at the pronoun “myself” and consider if “It is me” and “it is myself” are equivalents.
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‘Me” is used after the verb To be, and after the words than, but, like, and as, with such pertinacity it is at least doubtful whether it is not correct. Old English did not use the object me after the verb to be. We still use different words for most personal pronouns (he/him, I/me, we/us), but have lost it for you/you.
- Did you see me and my friends at the ice cream stand?
- It is further noted that “both forms are standard.”
- The answer to the question ‘Who’s there?
- They are both capable of being a complement.
- Aside from being ungrammatical, it conveys no information (unless the other person knows your voice).
Answers 9
I’ve always been taught to put myself last when referring to myself in the same sentence as others but the usage of “me and…” seems to be everywhere these days. We need to make the distinction between written and spoken English, especially informal spoken English – as between friends. However, “It is I who am here,” is also correct, and “who am here” can be left off and implied, making “It is I,” also correct. “It is me,” is more common, and correct.
Answers 5
Indeed, your example of ‘incorrect’ usage is incorrect solely in that the first sentence uses the accusative (objective) pronoun me, when you actually need the nominative (subjective) pronoun ‘I’. There is a tendency in informal speech and writing to use object pronouns when conjoined with other nouns or pronouns, even if serving as the subject of a verb. What happens is as pronouns in conjoined subjects get further and further from the verb, the impulse to change the default form into the subject form is weaker, and in informal contexts, is simply not followed. No, My partner and I is correct if you are in the nominative case (subjects), but if you are in the accusative case (objects) then it is my partner and me.
Modern English speakers have become more comfortable using the accusative case in comparisons even though traditionally comparisons have used the nominative case. The answer to the question ‘Who’s there? “It is ME” is not grammatically correct in the academic sense, but is used in spoken English. Find the answer to your question by asking.
It is further noted that “both forms are standard.” This question is related to I can run faster than… “It is I” would have been correct in Shakespeare’s time, in spoken English, but not now.
This happens because what linguists would call the “unmarked” or standard, basic form for pronouns turns out to be the objective form—me, him, her, them, and the like. The second sentence of that example is correct, since the pronoun needs to be in the accusative, as the object. “The traditional grammar rule states when a pronoun follows a linking verb, such as “is,” the pronoun should be in the subject case. It’s also called the “nominative.” In that exchange nohat describes the pronouns being used in the nominative and accusative cases.